Wednesday, February 12, 2020

ISTQB Dumps - Get Latest ISTQB Sample Papers 2020

There are lots of websites offering latest ISTQB Dumps both paid and free. Most of them are offering 10 years old ISTQB Dumps. Those dumps are no longer valid and are not useful.
If you are preparing for ISTQB Foundation exam in 2020 then you should refer to the following resources for your ISTQB exam preparation:
  1. Official ISTQB Syllabus: Available at ISTQB official website -
  2. Read few books such as one by Rex Black and Dorothy Graham
  3. Download free ISTQB Dumps and practice it regularly
  4. There are youtube videos available about ISTQB exam. Those are definitely helpful
  5. Practice Practice Practice - Follow reputed website about software testing and ISTQB certification and read the key concepts.
ISTQB Dumps are changing regularly. We collect new dumps proactively and prepare study materials based on the latest pattern. Visit us frequently to see the latest and newest ISTQB dumps for exam scheduled in 2020.

  1. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 1
  2. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 2
  3. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 3
  4. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 4
  5. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 5
  6. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 6
  7. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 7
  8. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 8
  9. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 9
  10. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 10
  11. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 11
  12. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 12
  13. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 13
  14. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 14
  15. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 15
  16. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 16
  17. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 17
  18. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 18
  19. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 19
  20. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 20
  21. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 21
  22. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 22
  23. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 23
  24. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 24
  25. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 25
  26. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 26
  27. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 27
  28. ISTQB Foundation Level Sample Papers – Set 28

Free dumps also available here or here. These dumps are based on ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018.

Buy Sure Pass ISTQB Dumps for BCS UKTB from the best source -

ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification

ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification

ISTQB introduced a new certification ISTQB Agile Tester Certification Extension. Software development as well as testing in an agile methodology follows a different approach compared to regular software projects in other models. Testers who are part of the agile projects need to have a very good understanding of Fundamentals of Agile software development, Features of Agile development, Testing in traditional and Agile projects, Testing in Agile projects, Roles and skills of a tester in Agile projects, Agile testing techniques and methods, Assess product quality risks within an Agile project, Tools and Techniques in Agile projects. This certification tests the knowledge of candidates in these areas.

Study Material or Books for ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification

ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification is a relatively a new certification program by ISTQB so there aren't many books or ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification dumps around it. In Amazon one ebook or Kindle Edition is available titled ISTQB Agile Tester : "One for all, all for one" which is not popular yet but you can use as study material or book for ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification. Though many verified purchaser have complained that authors have just copied the Official Syllabus and trid a create a book out of it.
So for the time being you can read the Agile Tester Extension Syllabus, Agile Tester Extension Overview, Agile Tester Extension Sample Exam, Agile Tester Extension Answer Sheet.

Frequently Asked Questions for ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification

1. What are the eligibility criteria to take up the ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification?
Candidate need to be an ISTQB Foundation Level certified before take up the Agile Tester Extension Certification.

2. What are the exam dates for ISTQB Agile Extension Certification in 2016?
For 2016 exam dates for ISTQB Agile Extension please contact certification board within your country.

3. What are the topics in Agile Tester Extension Certification syllabus?
The following topics are covered under the certification:

  • Fundamentals of Agile software development – The candidate taking up the certification should have an understanding of the fundamental theory and philosophy of Agile which was based on the Agile manifesto. They should understand the advantages of the whole team approach and that of early and regular feedback.
  • The features of Agile development – This topic covers the various approaches to software development under Agile. Candidates should be familiar with the process by which User Stories are created in partnership with product owners, business users and developers. This topic also covers the benefits of process improvement through the use of Retrospection and how continuous integration is useful in Agile projects and how it is implemented. Other aspects covered under this topic are release and iteration planning and the role of the tester in these processes.
  • Testing in traditional and Agile projects – This topics tests the candidates knowledge of the difference that exists in testing in Agile and non-Agile projects. It also covers function and responsibility of testing team/tester in an Agile project and how testing and coding work together in these projects.
  • Testing in Agile projects – This topic tests the knowledge of the candidates in areas related to communication of test status, progress and quality in Agile projects. It covers the work products that are used for this purpose. It also covers the importance of automation testing to manage risks and the testing processes evolution over multiple iterations.
  • Roles and skills of a tester in Agile projects – A tester in an Agile project is expected to know his/her role and the skills that they must processes in order to perform their tasks effectively.
  • Agile testing techniques and methods – Candidates appearing for the certification should be able to recollect details of Behavior Driven Development, Test Driven Development, Acceptance Test Driven Development, test pyramid. They should also have an understanding of testing levels, types and quadrants. They should also be knowledgeable regarding the role of a tester in a Scrum team.
  • Assess product quality risks within an Agile project
  • Estimate testing effort in Agile based on iteration content and quality risks
  • Tools and Techniques in Agile projects – Testers should be able to identify various tools and their use, how and when they are used in Agile projects. They should also be able interpret business requirements for testing activities and be able to explain the acceptance criteria to the business teams. They should be able to come up with Acceptance Test driven development test cases based on the user stories and should also be able to create test cases for both functional and non-functional test. They should also have knowledge of exploratory testing techniques.

4. What is the structure of ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification?
ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification contains 40 multiple choice questions which have to be answered in 60 minutes. You have to score 65% in order to pass or clear the exam.

5. Can I take up ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certification now?
This certification might not be available in all countries at the moment. You need to contact the certification board within your country to find out if the exam is actually administered in your country. They will be able to answers queries on availability of the exam, fees, dates etc for the exam.

6. Why should I take the certification, what are the benefits?
If you take up this certification you'll get comprehensive understanding of the Agile Methodology. Nowadays the majority of the companies follow the Agile Process and while hiring the candidates they ask whether he/she has Agile knowledge or not. Now if you will be ISTQB Agile Tester Extension Certified then it shows your knowledge of Agile Process to the interviewer which gives you an advantage.

7. Where can I find ISTQB Dumps 2017?
Download ISTQB Dumps 2017  here -

ISTQB Sample Question Paper #10 with Answer

ISTQB Dumps 2017 - ISTQB Sample Question Paper #10 with Answer

Q1 A deviation from the specified or expected behaviour that is visible to end-users is called:
a)an error
b)a fault
c)a failure
d)a defect

Q2 Regression testing should be performed:
v)every week
w)after the software has changed
x)as often as possible
y)when the environment has changed
z)when the project manager says
a)v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b)w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c)w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d)w is true, v, x, y & z are false

Q3 IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a)test items
b)test deliverables
c)test tasks
d)test specifications

Q4 When should testing be stopped?
a)when all the planned tests have been run
b)when time has run out
c)when all faults have been fixed correctly
d)it depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q5 Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which of
the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and valid
a)1000, 50000, 99999
b)9999, 50000, 100000
c)10000, 50000, 99999
d)10000, 99999, 100000

Q6 Consider the following statements about early test design:
i.early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii.faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii.early test design can find faults
iv.early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v.early test design normally takes more effort
a)i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b)iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c)i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d)i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false

Q7 Non-functional system testing includes:
a)testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b)testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c)testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d)testing for functions that should not exist

Q8 Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a)auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b)status accounting of configuration items
c)identification of test versions
d)controlled library access

Q9 Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in the
a)to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b)to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c)to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d)to specify how the software should be divided into modules

Q10 What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a)to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b)to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c)to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d)to determine when to stop testing

Q11 Consider the following statements: incident may be closed without being fixed.
ii.incidents may not be raised against documentation.
iii.the final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
iv.the incident record does not include information on test environments.
a)ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b)i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c)i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d)i and ii are true, iii and iv are false

Q12 Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number of test cases required
for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
a)1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b)1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c)1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d)2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

Q13 Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a)ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b)i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c)ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d)ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False

Q14 Functional system testing is:
a)testing that the system functions with other systems
b)testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c)testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d)testing the system performs functions within specified response times

Q15 Incidents would not be raised against:
c)test cases
d)improvements suggested by users

Q16 Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a)operating systems
b)test documentation
c)live data
d)user requirement documents

Q17 Maintenance testing is:
a)updating tests when the software has changed
b)testing a released system that has been changed
c)testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d)testing to maintain business advantage

Q18 What can static analysis NOT find?
a)the use of a variable before it has been defined
b)unreachable (“dead”) code
c)memory leaks
d)array bound violations

Q19 Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a)state transition testing
c)syntax testing
d)boundary value analysis

Q20 Beta testing is:
a)performed by customers at their own site
b)performed by customers at the software developer's site
c)performed by an Independent Test Team
d)performed as early as possible in the lifecycle

Q21 Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by
an independent system test team?
i.static analysis
ii.performance testing
iii.test management
iv.dynamic analysis
a)developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b)developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c)developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d)developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii

Q22 The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a)finding faults in the system
b)ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c)testing the system with other systems
d)testing from a business perspective

Q23 Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a)black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b)white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c)cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d)black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique

Q24 Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a)inspection is the most formal review process
b)inspections should be led by a trained leader
c)managers can perform inspections on management documents
d)inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents

Q25 A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)calculating expected outputs
b)comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c)recording test inputs
d)reading test values from a data file

Q26 The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a)re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected sideeffects
b)re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been
c)re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d)re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers

Q27 Expected results are:
a)only important in system testing
b)only used in component testing
c)most useful when specified in advance
d)derived from the code

Q28 What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
c)management review
d)post project review

Q29 Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a)component testing
b)non-functional system testing
c)user acceptance testing
d)maintenance testing

Q30 What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a)setting up forms and databases
b)analysing metrics and improving processes
c)writing the documents to be inspected
d)time spent on the document outside the meeting

Q31Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a)to find faults in the software
b)to prove that the software has no faults
c)to give confidence in the software
d)to find performance problems

Q32 Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:
1.led by the author
2.undocumented management participation
4.led by a moderator or leader
5.uses entry and exit criteria
t)peer review
u)informal review
a)s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b)s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c)s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d)s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3

Q33 Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a)business process-based testing
b)performance, load and stress testing
c)usability testing
d)top-down integration testing

Q34 Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a)expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b)expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c)expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d)expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times

Q35 The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a)ISO/IEC 12207
b)BS 7925-1

Q36 The cost of fixing a fault:
a)is not important
b)increases the later a fault is found
c)decreases the later a fault is found
d)can never be determined

Q37 Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation
a)what is not to be tested
b)test environment properties
c)quality plans
d)schedules and deadlines

Q38 Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a)no, because they apply to development documentation
b)no, because they are normally applied before testing
c)yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d)yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities

Q39 Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a)measuring response times
b)recovery testing
c)simulating many users
d)generating many transactions

Q40 Error guessing is best used:
a)after more formal techniques have been applied
b)as the first approach to deriving test cases
c)by inexperienced testers
d)after the system has gone live

1 » C
2 » C
3 » D
4 » D
5 » C
6 » A
7 » B
8 » A
9 » C
10 » D
11 » B
12 » B
13 » D
14 » C
15 » D
16 » C
17 » B
18 » C
19 » B
20 » A
21 » A
22 » D
23 » A
24 » D
25 » A
26 » A
27 » C
28 » B
29 » D
30 » C
31 » B
32 » A
33 » D
34 » A
35 » B
36 » B
37 » C
38 » C
39 » B
40 » A

ISTQB Sample Question Paper #9 with Answer

ISTQB Dumps 2017  - ISTQB Sample Question Paper #9 with Answer

1. The process starting with the terminal modules is called -
a. Top-down integration
b. Bottom-up integration
c. None of the above
d. Module integration

2. The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
a. Project plan
b. Business plan
c. Support plan
d. None of the above

3. If an expected result is not specified then:
a. We cannot run the test
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
d. We cannot automate the user inputs

4. Which of the following could be a reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
c. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
d. All of them are valid reasons for failure

5. Test are prioritized so that:
a. You shorten the time required for testing
b. You do the best testing in the time available
c. You do more effective testing
d. You find more faults

6. Which of the following is not a static testing technique
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections

7. Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
a. Component testing should be performed by development
b. Component testing is also know as isolation or module testing
c. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
d. Component testing does not involve regression testing

8. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
a. Execution
b. Design
c. Planning
d. Check Exit criteria completion

9. Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?
a. Being diplomatic
b. Able to write software
c. Having good attention to detail
d. Able to be relied on

10. The purpose of requirement phase is
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the above

11. Verification is:
a. Checking that we are building the right system
b. Checking that we are building the system right
c. Performed by an independent test team
d. Making sure that it is what the user really wants

12. A regression test:
a. Will always be automated
b. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
c. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
d. Can only be run during user acceptance testing

13. Function/Test matrix is a type of
a. Interim Test report
b. Final test report
c. Project status report
d. Management report

14. Defect Management process does not include
a. Defect prevention
b. Deliverable base-lining
c. Management reporting
d. None of the above

15. What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside your country, versus
testing software developed by a contractor within your country?
a. Does not meet people needs
b. Cultural difference
c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
d. Relinquishments of control

16. Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?
a. 10-20
b. 40-50
c. 70-80
d. 5-10

17. A reliable system will be one that:
a. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
b. Is unlikely to cause a failure
c. Is likely to be fault-free
d. Is likely to be liked by the users

18. How much testing is enough
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
c. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
d. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry

19. Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?
a. Operability
b. Observability
c. Simplicity
d. Robustness

20. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
a. White box
b. Black box
c. Green box
d. Yellow box

21. Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?
a. Simple Loops
b. Nested Loops
c. Concatenated Loops
d. All of the above

22. To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above

23. Equivalence partitioning is:
a. A black box testing technique used only by developers
b. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
c. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
d. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing

24. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. The independent testing team
d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

25. Inspections can find all the following except
a. Variables not defined in the code
b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
d. How much of the code has been covered

1 » B
2 » A
3 » C
4 » D
5 » B
6 » A
7 » D
8 » C
9 » B
10 » D
11 » B
12 » B
13 » C
14 » B
15 » B
16 » B
17 » B
18 » B
19 » D
20 » A
21 » D
22 » B
23 » C
24 » A
25 » D

ISTQB Sample Question Paper #8 with Answer

ISTQB Dumps 2020 - ISTQB Sample Question Paper #8 with Answer

1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.

2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and
replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing

3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that
achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one
that achieves 100% branch coverage.

4. Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.

5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
Say: “That will be £19:50”
Say: “That will be £9:75”
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a)3 b)4 &nbsp c)5 &nbsp d)6

6. Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.

7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.

8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.

9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of
the following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5

10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.

11. Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.

12. Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.

13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.

14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage

15. Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.

16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.

17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b

18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.

19. The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.

20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest
test phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix

21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.

22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing

23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule

24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning

25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing

26. Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.

27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000

28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.

29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification

30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.

31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.

32. Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.

33. Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.

34. Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.

35. A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.

36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000

37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.

38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.

39. Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.

40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.

1 » A
2 » A
3 » D
4 » C
5 » A
6 » A
7 » C
8 » B
9 » C
10 » D
11 » A
12 » B
13 » A
14 » C
15 » B
16 » B
17 » D
18 » D
19 » B
20 » A
21 » D
22 » A
23 » B
24 » C
25 » D
26 » C
27 » C
28 » A
29 » C
30 » D
31 » C
32 » B
33 » C
34 » C
35 » B
36 » D
37 » C
38 » D
39 » D
40 » B

ISTQB Sample Question Paper #7 with Answer

ISTQB Dumps - ISTQB Sample Question Paper #7 with Answer

1. ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations
A. Alpha testing B. Field testing C. Performance testing D. System testing

2. System testing should investigate
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

3. Which is the non-functional testing
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing D. Sanity testing

4. Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the
review meeting
A. Moderator B. Scribe C. Reviewers D. Author

5. What is the main purpose of Informal review
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

6. Purpose of test design technique is
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases

7. ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage
A. Boundary value analysis B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing D. State transition testing

8. Use cases can be performed to test
A. Performance testing B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios D. Static testing

9. ________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site
A. Unit testing B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing D. Integration testing

10. The purpose of exit criteria is
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above

1 » B
2 » C
3 » A
4 » B
5 » A
6 » C
7 » B
8 » C
9 » C
10 » D

ISTQB Sample Question Paper #6 with Answer

ISTQB Dumps - ISTQB Sample Question Paper #6 with Answer

1. COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software

2. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing

3. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or
the system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any
other means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found
by a test phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system

4. ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester

5. An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi

6. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a
grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis

7. All of the following might be done during unit testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walkthrough
D. Compiler based testing

8. Find the Min number of tests to ensure that each statement is executed at least once
A. 5
B. 6
C. 4
D. 8

9. Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system

10. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact
of proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control

11. Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.

12. Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools

13. A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application.
The best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater

14. A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the
implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
B. Establish a relationship with the customer
C. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan
D. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’ s management style
E. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace

15. Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs?
Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user

16. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
D.I, II & IV

17. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer
rejects the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility

18. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during
system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version

19. A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements, or both are combined
all at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing

20. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and
testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component
integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.
A. Water Fall Model
C. Spiral Model
D. RAD Model

21. Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human
input, input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning

22. There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on
multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would
not do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity

23. You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says
that due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working
days after the due date. You can not change the resources(work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you
will take to be able to finish the testing in time.
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided

24. Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report
B. Release note
C. Review report
D. Audit report

25. Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
A. Data driven testing
B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing
D. Back to back testing

26. Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing
B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing

27. Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799
B. BS 7925/2
C. ISO/IEC 926/1
D. ISO/IEC 2382/1

28. “The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation” done by
A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities

29. A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization
regarding testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test

30. You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes
and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system
and also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole

31. Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change
request must be written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.
A. I, III and IV
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II and IV

32. ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers
to operate the system and judge correct behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue
effectively and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III and IV.

33. “This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This statement is best suited
A. Water fall model
B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model
D. V-Model

34. The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
A. I, II and III
B. I, II and IV
C. II, III and IV
D. I, III and IV

35. One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies
converge at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test
results meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days.
Who is responsible for this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only

36. System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase
entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the
system testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

37. Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing
B. Usability testing
C. Component testing
D. Maintainability testing

1 » A
2 » C
3 » A
4 » C
5 » B
6 » A
7 » B
8 » B
9 » A
10» C
11 » C
12 » A
13 » B
14 » B
15 » D
16 » C
17 » D
18 » B
19 » B
20 » B
21 » D
22 » C
23 » C
24 » B
25 » B
26 » D
27 » B
28 » A
29 » C
30 » A
31 » D
32 » A
33 » D
34 » B
35 » A
36 » D
37 » A